Discussion Starter: Sin and Slavery in "City of God"

Although none of the study questions explicitly bring it up, I'd like to attempt to explore the theme of justified inequality in "City of God," specifically as it relates to how Augustine justifies the use of slavery.

In Book 19.15, Augustine explains the natural order of the world with regard to man's 'dominion' over things. "[God] did not wish the rational being, made in his own image, to have dominion over any but irrational creatures, not man over man, but man over the beats" (19.15). Despite God not wishing for man's dominion over man, Augustine explains that "it is understood, of course, that the condition of slavery is imposed on the sinner." Augustine then continues in Book 19.15 to explain that "Noah, the just man, punished his son's sin with this word [slavery], and so that son deserved the name because of his misdeed, not because of his nature." While Augustine recognizes that slavery is a mortal injustice, that injustice is warranted and justified when it is a punishment from God for sin: "[slavery] can only happen by the judgement of God, with whom there is no injustice, and who knows how to allot different punishments according to the deserts of the offenders" (19.15).

The justification for enslavement, in this way, is found in how it inflicts an injustice; because all sin is against the order of nature, slavery as a punishment for sin is 'just' because it similarly goes against all order of nature (and God's original wish). This explanation of slavery as a divine punishment for sin is Augustine's dismissal of the idea that there are natural inequalities among men that give rise to 'slavery,' while at the same time, his justification and excuse for the slavery found in his society as a necessary divine institution to maintain "a natural order and [forbid] its disturbance" (19.15).

This, by itself, is an interesting approach to the idea of slavery as a necessary institution for the atonement of sin. Are Augustine's views on slavery as atonement for sin more in line with teachings from the Old Testament/Hebrew Bible or with teachings from the New Testament? Where else have we seen injustice allowed for the sake of maintaining a 'natural order'?

In my opinion, however, Augustine further complicates his justification for slavery by some of his other claims. In Book 1.26, Augustine gives an explanation for why unlawful acts by the saints should be excused. "It may be that they acted on divine instruction and no through a human mistakes - not in error, but in obedience... When God orders, and shows without ambiguity that he orders, no one will bring an accusation again obedience." A similar sentiment is made in Book 1.21, where Augustine explains that some homicide is not murder, provided that it is done on the authority of God. (This is why the Crusades were "excusable".) In these cases, specific people were 'chosen by God' and specifically allowed to sin, yet not punished by enslavement.

Removing the religious element (the 'chosen by God' part), why are certain people in society ('saints and soldiers') allowed to act without repercussion? What differentiates these people, aside from God's will? Even though Augustine argues that "by nature. . . no man is the slave either of man or of sin" (19.15), does this view that only some people can be excused from punishment for their sins point toward the existence of natural inequalities in people (that might lead to slavery)?